Saturday, July 17, 2010

BCQs of RENAL PHYSIOLOGY

RENAL PHYSIOLOGY:




1. Renal blood flow is dependent on:

A. Juxtaglomerular apparatus

B. [Na+] at macula densa

C. Afferent vasodilatation

D. Arterial pressure – CORRECT - if there is NO PRESSURE.

E. Efferent vasoconstriction



2.Which has the greatest renal clearance?

A. PAH - Yes, used to measure renal plasma flow

B. Glucose – No, 100% reabsorbed

C. Urea – No, 53% reabsorbed

D. Water

E. Inulin



3.The thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle is:

A. Impermeable to Na+ - No, active transport… (Na-K-2Cl-ATPase)

B. Involved in active transport of K+ into the lumen – No, passive diffusion and actively pumped out

C. Involved in active transport of Cl- out of lumen – CORRECT (Na-K-2Cl-channel) – secondary active transport

D. Involved in active transport of Na+ into lumen



4.Water filtration by the kidney:

A. Is 180 l/hr – No, GFR is 180 L/Day

B. Is 125 ml/min – Correct

C. Up to 90% is reabsorbed – No, up to 99.7% reabsorbed (maximal ADH)

D. Most drugs have MW less than 600 and are freely filtered



5.Which ONE of the following is NOT involved in the regulation of glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

A. Juxtaglomerular apparatus –

B. Arterial pressure – No, autoregulation maintains GFR (unless outside extremes) – BUT there is the


pressure diuresis concept. CORRECT

C. Efferent arteriolar tone

D. Na content in distal tubule

E. Afferent arteriolar tone



6. Significant tubular reabsorption occurs with:

A. Phosphate – CORRECT, proximal tubule Na/Pi co transporter

B. Creatinine

C. Urea

D. Sulphate

E. All of the above



7.The formula for GFR is:

A. GFR = Kf (HPG - HPB + OPG - OPB)

B. GFR = Kf (HPG - HPB - OPG + OPB) - Correct

C. GFR = Kf (HPG + HPB - OPG + OPB)

D. GFR = Kf (HPG + HPB - OPG - OPB)

E. GFR = Kf (HPG - HPB - OPG - OPB)

(Comment: HP is hydrostatic pressure, OP is oncotic pressure, G is glomerulus, B is Bowman’s capsule)



8. Resistance to renal blood flow is chiefly determined by:

A. Renal artery

B. Afferent & efferent arterioles – Correct

C. Interlobular & arcuate arteries

D. Peritubular capillaries



9. Kidneys produce:

A. Erythropoietin - CORRECT

B. ADH - No, supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus

C. Angiotensin II – No, produced in the liver

D. ANP - Atrium

E. Cholecalciferol – Made in the skin, 25-hydroxy in the liver, 1-hydroxy in the kidney



10. Renal nerve sympathetic stimulation

A. Causes increased sodium reabsorption from the PCT – CORRECT- directly affects tubular reabsorption as well as effect on RBF & GFR

B. Inhibits renin release

C. Increased GFR.

D. causes increased potasium reabsorption.



11. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR):

A. Is independent of the size of the capillary bed – No, it is dependant on capillary SA and permeability (Kf)


(GFR = Kf [PGC – (PT + πGC)]

B. Depends only on the hydrostatic and osmotic pressure differences across the capillary

C. Is determined by the same forces governing filtration across all other capillaries - Correct

D. Depends only on the permeability of the capillary

E. Requires active transport – No, passive



12. Increase in GFR occurs with

A. Increased sympathetic stimulation

B. Decreased renal blood flow

C. Hypoproteinaemia – Correct (Starling’s Forces) but would be offset by TGF with time

D. Ureteric obstruction

E. None of the above



13. Regarding urea:

A. Urea is formed from ornithine – No, from Arginine to Ornithine & Urea

B. 10% is reabsorbed by kidney

c. 60% is reabsorbed by kidney. CORRECT

D. all is excreted in urine.



14. The clearance (or 'renal regulation') of which ONE of the following is NOT regulated by a hormone:

A. Sodium – Yes, aldosterone

B. Potassium – Yes, aldosterone

C. Calcium – Yes, PTH

D. Phosphate – Yes, PTH

E. Sulphate – ANSWER IS WRONG but CORRECT.





15. Biggest contribution to urine concentration by:

A. Na+ absorption in thick ascending limb - CORRECT

B. Passive diffusion of urea in collecting ducts

C. Chloride absorption in distal convoluted tubule

D. K+ reabsorption in thick ascending limb.



16. Water excretion by the kidney is due to:

A. solvent drag

B. Active transport into the lumen

C. Passive secretion in the collecting tubules

D. bulk flow and filtration - CORRECT



17. Angiotensin II causes:

A. Increases proximal tubular reabsorption of Na & H2O & increases secretion of K

B. Increases late distal and collecting tubular reabsorption of Na & H2O &

increases secretion of K+ -CORRECT

C. Decreases distal tubular reabsorption of Na & H2O

D. Increases excretion of Na & H2O



18. Secretion of K+ by distal tubule will decrease by:

A. metabolic alkalosis

B. thiazide diuretics administration

C. spironolactone administration - CORRECT

D. a high K+ diet.



19. To maintain normal H+ balance, total daily excretion of H+ shoul equal the daily

A. fixed acid producation plus fixed acid ingestion - CORRECT

B. HCO-3 excretion

C. HCO-3 filtered load

D. filtered load of H+



20. At plasma concentration of glucose higher than occur at transport maximum, the

a. clearance of glucose is zero

b. excretion rate of glucose equals the filtration rate of glucose.

c. reabsorption rate of glucose equals the filtration rate of glucose - CORRECT

d. excretion rate of glucose increases with increasing plasma glucose concentrations.



21. which of the following would produce an increase in the reabsorption of iso-osmotic fluid in proximal tubule?

a. increased filtration fraction - CORRECT

b. extracellular fluid (ECF) volume expansion

c. decreased peritubular capillary hydrostatic pressure.

d. increased peritubular capillary hydrostatic pressure.



22. which of the following substances or combination of substances could be used to measure interstitial fluid volume?

a. mannitol

b. D2O

c. evans blue

d. inulin and radioactive albumin - CORRECT.



23. which of the following would cause an increase in both glomerular filtration rate( GFR) and renal plasma flow (RPF)?

a. dilation of afferent arteriole - CORRECT.

b. dilation of efferent arteriole

c. constriction of afferent arteriole

d. constriction of efferent arteriole



24. which of the following changes would you expect to find in patient consuming a hig-sodium diet (200mEq/day) compared with same patient on a normal sodium diet (100mEq/day), assuming a normal steady state condition?

a. increased plasma renin activity

b. decreased plasma renin activity -CORRECT

c.increased urinary potassium excretion

d. increased plasma sodium concentration of at least 5mmol/L



25. which of the following changes tends to increase urinary Ca+2 excretion?

a. extracellular fluid volume expansion - CORRECT

b. intracellular fluid volume expansion

c. increased plasma parathyroid hormone concentration

d. increased plasma phosphate concentration.



26. which of the following statement is true.

a. ADH decreases urea permeability in the medullary collecting tubules

b. osmolarity of fluid in early distal tubule would be less than 300mOsm/L in a dehydrated person with normal kidneys and increased ADH levels - CORRECT.

c. ADH increases water reabsorption from descending loop of henle.

d. water reabsorptions is less than that from ascending loop of henle.



27. A healthy 25 years old man runs a 10 Km race on hot day and become very dehydrated. Assuming that his antidiuretic hormone levels are very high, in which part of renal tubule is the most water reabsorbed.

a. proximal tubule - CORRECT

b.distal tubule

c. cortical collecting duct

d. medullary collecting duct



28. which of the following changes would you expect to find in a dehydrated person deprived of water for 24 hours?

a. increased water permeability of collecting duct - CORRECT

b. increased water permeability in ascending loop of henle

c. decreased plasma renin activity

d. decreased plasma antidiuretic hormone concentration.



29. In acidosis, most of the hydrogen ions secreted by the proximal tubule are associated with which of the following processes?

a. reabsorption of potassium ion

b. reabsorption of bicarbonate ion - CORRECT

c. reabsorption of phosphate ion

d. excretion of Hydrogen ion.



30. A 46 years old women complains of severe polyuria and polydipsia. her urine contains no glucose and her urine is hyposmotic. which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a. diabetes mellitus

b. diabetes insipidus - CORRECT

c. primary aldosteronism

d. syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone.



31. In a patient who has become dehydrated, body water should be replaced by intravenous infusion of.

a. distilled water

b. hyperoncotic albumin

c. 10% glucose solution

d. 5% glucose solution - CORRECT.



32. In a patient with a plasma PH of 7.10 the [HCO-3] / [H2CO3] ratio in plasma is?

a. 20

b. 10 - CORRECT

c. 2

d. 1



33. Increasing alvealor ventilation increases the blood PH because:

a. it activates neural mechanism that removes acid from the blood

b. it makes hemoglobin a stronger acid

c. it increases the PO2 of blood

d. it decreases the PCO2 of alveoli. - CORRECT



34. which of the following is the principal buffer in interstitial fluid?

a. hemoglobin

b. carbonic acid - CORRECT

c. H2PO4

d. protein buffer



35.Dehydration increases the plasma concentration of all of the following hormones EXCEPT:

a. atrial natriuretic peptide - CORRECT

b. angiotension II

c. aldosteron

d. vasopressin



36. In a resting adult, the kidney receives 1.2 to 1.3 liter of blood each minute, or just 25% of cardiac output. A high protein diet increases blood flow by rising:

a. oncotic pressure

b. osmotic pull of plasma

c. glomerular capillary pressure - CORRECT

d. mean arterial pressure.



37. The mesangial cells are especially located between the glomerular capillaries, these being contractile in nature; increasing glomerular filtration rate when inhibited by ANP hormone that results in pressure diuresis by causing in the tubules the following effect:

a. hypotension

b. increased GFR

c. Aldosteron escape - CORRECT

d. no ADH effect



38. The GFR in an average sized man is approximately 125ml/min or 180 lit/day . At this rate of filtration, kidney filters in one day, amount of fluid equal to following except:

a. renal fraction – CORRECT

b. 4 times the total body water

c. 15 times the total ECF volume

d. 60 times the plasma volume



40.which of the following ion is both reabsorbed and secreted across the tubular epithelium.

a. NA+

b. K+ - CORRECT

c. Cl-

d. HCO-3



41. Diuretic, an agent that increases urinary output. The diuretics like FUROSEMIDE, ETHACRYNIC ACID causes a marked diuresis by inhibiting one of the following carrier protein in the renal tubules:

a. NA+ - Glucose cotransporter

b. NA+ - H+ exchanger

c. NA+ - 2Cl- - K+ - CORRECT.

d. ENac



42. The limiting PH of urine in collecting ducts can stop even active secretion of H+ hence it is prevented by the following buffers EXCEPT one:

a. HCO-3

B. HPO4-2

C. NH3

D. protein buffer - CORRECT



43. Osmolarity of fluid in proximal tubule is:

a. less than osmolarity of plasma

b. greater than osmolarity of plasma

c. 1200 mOsm/ L

d. 300 mOsm/ L - CORRECT



44. purpose of counter current exchanged is to

a. decrease renal blood flow

b. maintain medullary fluid osmolarity - CORRECT.

c. forms dilute or concentrated urine

d. reabsorbs sodium



45. Renal buffer formed by kidney it self is

a ammonium buffer - CORRECT

b. phosphate buffer

c. bicarbonate buffer

d. protein buffer



46. composition of glomerular filtrate is

a. same is plasma

b. plasma minus the plasma proteins - CORRECT

c. like intracellular fluid

d. like trasncellular fluid



47.many patient with renal disease retain excessive amount of sodium and become edematous and hypertensive because of following except one:

a. pyelonephritis - CORRECT

b. glomerulonephritis

c. heart - failure

d. nephrotic syndrome



48.which of the following conditions increases renin secretion from kidney:

a. increase ANP

B. Increase GFR

c. increased mean atrial pressure

d. sympathetic stimulation - CORRECT.



49. Potassium sparing diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in which of the following:

a. proximal tubule

b. thick ascending limb of loop of henle

c. distal convulated tubule

d. cortical collecting duct. - CORRECT.



50. tubuloglomerular balance is a process that causes increased reabsorption of salt and water when GFR increases. The process is related by increase in:

a. peritubular capillary oncotic pressure - CORRECT

b. proximal tubular flow

c. distal tubular flow

d. peritubular capillary hydrostatic pressure
ENDOCRINE AND METABOLIC PHYSIOLOGY:

1. Effects of a 24 hour fast:
A. Glycogenolysis or gluconeogenesis CORRECT
B. Protein catabolism – only prolonged fasting
C. Acidosis – only prolonged fasting
D. Ketone production from protein

2. After 24 hours without food or water a healthy young adult will:
A. Deplete glycogen rapidly – No, it should only last about 24 hours (and the question states ‘after’)
B. Develop a metabolic acidosis
C. Demonstrate ketone body formation in the liver - CORRECT
D. Have decreased protein content of body

3. Which hormone causes increased glycogenolysis, increased gluconeogenesis, increased protein anabolism & increased plasma FFA?
A. Cortisol
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Growth hormone - CORRECT
D. Insulin

4. Which hormone causes increased BSL, increased protein catabolism & increased plasma FFA?
A. Cortisol – Correct
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Growth hormone
D. Insulin

5.The hypothalamus inhibits the release of:
A. TSH
B. ACTH
C. FSH
D. GH – Correct (somatostatin)
E. Oxytocin

6. Which decreases renin release: mark any 2:
A. PG – No, this stimulates renin secretion
B. Angiotensin II – Correct, negative feedback by A2 on renin release
C. Vasopressin – Correct, this inhibits renin secretion
D. Baroceptor stimulation – No, this would increase renin secretion

7. Secretion of renin is stimulated by:
A. Increased left atrial pressure
B. Increased angiotensin II
C. Decreased right atrial pressure – CORRECT: if this sufficient to activate renal sympathetic nerves
D. erythropoietin

8. Regarding hyperglycaemia: Which of the following is untrue? It causes:
A. Increased H+
B. Increased Na+ (?K+)
C. Increased urine output
D. Increased ECF (or blood volume)
E. Increased glucagon - ANSWER

9. Mechanism of action of ADH:
A. Insertion of water channels (pores) into basolateral membrane – No, apical membrane
B. Increase in GFR
C. Insertion of water channels into luminal (apical) membrane – CORRECT V2 receptors -> Adenalyl cyclase -> cAMP acting on vesicles containing Aquaporin-2 Channels (removed when cAMP levels fall)
C. Increased Na+ uptake in DCT
D. Removal of water pores from apical membrane

10. ADH and the cortical collecting ducts which is correct:
A. Inserts water channels into the apical membrane – Correct
B. Inserts water channels into the basolateral membrane - Incorrect
C. Increases paracellular flow
d. removal of water pores froma apical membrane.

11. How many hours after a meal is Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) measured?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 12 hours – CORRECT
E. 18 hour

12. Which ONE of the following is a water soluble vitamin?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B – Correct
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin E
E. Vitamin K

13. regarding Insulin receptor
A. Receptor site intracellular – No, extracellular (2 alpha subunits), and the 2 beta subunits are intracellular
B. Inactivates tyrosine kinase – Insulin binds to receptor, triggering the tyrosine kinase activity of the beta
subunits
C. Activates membrane glucose transport - CORRECT
D. Acts via activation of transport protein to increase glucose transport into cells

14. How does insulin act?
A. Voltage gated ion channels
B. Tyrosine kinase membrane receptor - Correct
C. Nuclear receptor
D. G protein

15. Heat production at rest is mostly due to:
A. Skeletal muscle activity
B. Na,K ATPase pump CORRECT -accounts for about 30% of basal activity, most is actually for ATP synthesis
C. Dynamic action of food
D. activity of heart

16. Decreased heat production under general anaesthesia is due to:
A. Decreased skeletal muscle tone – Correct
B. Decreased anterior pituitary function
C. Vasodilatation
D. Starvation
E. Decreased Na+/K+ ATPase activity

17. Heat loss in anaesthesia due to
A. Loss Na/K ATPase
B. Loss of skeletal muscle tone
C. Vasodilatation – Correct
D. Respiratory tract

18. Angiotensinogen secretion is increased by:
A. ACTH -CORRECT - glucocorticoids increase angiotensinogen secretion (Ganong, p439)
B. Beta-endorphin
C. Growth hormone
D. Antidiuretic hormone
E. Prolactin

19. The energy value of 1g of carbohydrate is:
A. 3 kcal
B. 4 kcal – CORRECT - 4.1kcal/g liberated from carbohydrate
C. 5 kcal
D. 7 kcal
E. 9 kcal

20. G protein coupled receptors. All true EXCEPT:
A. Seven transmembrane components
B. Hydrophobic links
c. G protein has intrinsic GTPase activity – CORRECT ., the alpha-subunit has GTPase activity
D. The receptor is a heterotrimeric protein – No, the G protein is – the receptor is coupled to it - ANSWER

21. Endothelins:
A. Produced by damaged vascular endothelium
B. Vasoactive
C. Found in brain & intestine
D. all are correct. - ANSWER

22. low respiratory quotient in a septic patient is due to:
A. Increased lactic acid
B. Fat metabolism – Correct, sepsis -> increased fat metabolism -> decreased RQ
C. Increased ventilation
D. Fever

BCQS of CELL PHYSIOLOGY

CELL PHYSIOLOGY:




1.CELL MEMBRANE IS:

a. more permeable to K+ than Na+ - CORRECT

b. the main site for ATP synthesis

c. composed cheifly of lipids

d. composed of two layers of lipids and proteins



2. CELL MEMBRANE HAS:

a. glycogen molecules embedded in it

b. protein molecules embedded in it - CORRECT

c. structure similar to protein bilayer

d. a thickness of 40mm



3. CELL MEMBRANE COMPOSED OF HIGH PERCENTAGE OF:

a. proteins - CORRECT

b. lipids

c. phospholipids

d. carbohydrates



4. THE MEMBRANE BOUND ORGANELLE OF CELL IS:

a. ribosome

b. filaments

c. microtubles

d. golgi apparatus - CORRECT



5. SECRETORY VESICLES ARE FORMED BY:

a. rough endoplasmic reticulum

b. golgi bodies

c. lysosomes - CORRECT

d. peroxisomes



6. THE ORGANELLE THAT CONTAINS DIGESTIVE ENZYMES IS:

a. mitochondria

b. lysosomes - CORRECT

c. ribosomes

d. golgi apparatus



7. THE ORGANELLE THAT COMBINES PROTEINS WITH CARBOHYDRATES AND PACKAGE THEM WITHIN VESICLES FOR SECRETION IS:

a. golgi complex - CORRECT

b. SER

C. RER

d. ribosomes



8. MITOCHONDRIA ARE PRESENT IN ALL THE CELLS OF THE BODY EXCEPT:

a. hepatocytes

b. cardiac muscle cells

c. mature RBC - CORRECT

d. skeletal muscle cells



9. LYSOSOMES CONTAINS:

a. oxidases

b. hydrolases -CORRECT

c. reductases

d. esterases



10. The source from where the nutrients come in ECF is:

a. brain

b. kidney

c. muscle

d. GIT - CORRECT.



11. MITOCHONDRIAL MATRIX contains all EXCEPT:

a. RNA

b. DNA

c. pigment - CORRECT

d. oxidative enzymes



12. All the statements about functions of smooth endoplasmic reticulum are true EXCEPT:

a. in pituitary, synthesize steroid hormone

b. in liver, causes detoxification

c. in nerve cell, forms axon and dendrites - CORRECT

d. in muscle, forms T-tubles and sarcoplasmic reticulum



13. second messenger:

a. are the substance that bind with first messenger

b. are hormones secreted by cells in response to stimulation by other hormone.

c. mediate the intracellular responses many different hormones and neuro-transmitters. - CORRECT.

d. are the peropheral proteins of cell membrane



14. The example of negative feed back is:

a. child birth

b. regulation of arterial pressure - CORRECT

c. haemostasis

d. coagulation of blood



15. MITOTIC apparatus consists of:

a. nucleus

b two chromatids

c. two centrioles at opposite poles of nucleus and microtubules connecting them- CORRECT

d. two centrosome lies perpendicular to each other.



16. The enzyme CATALASE present within the peroxisome prevents excessive accumulation of:

a. water

b. hydrogen ions

c. hydrogen peroxide - CORRECT

d. lactic acid



17. in skeletal muscles, agranular endoplasmic reticulum:

a. stores calcium ions - CORRECT

b. synthesizes lipids

c. makes antibodies

d. modifies proteins



18. Drug detoxification occurs in hepatocytes following proliferation of the

a. smooth endoplasmic reticulum - CORRECT

b. endosomes

c. lysosomes

d. rough endoplasmic reticulum



19.exocrine and endocrine glands have extensive:

a. ER

b. golgi apparatus - CORRECT

c. mitochondria

d. peripheral proteins in their cell membrane



20. inclusion bodies are:

a. metabolically active substance

b. lifeless accumulation of material - CORRECT.

c. also called microbodies

d. stores energy sources



21. one organelle that is more acidic than other organelle is:

a. lysosomes- CORRECT

b. ribosomes

c. golgi apparatus

d. mitochondria



22. which of the following are present in neuronal cell body:

a. microtubules

b. neuro filaments

c. nissel bodies

d. all of the above - CORRECT



23. all of the following statements concerning plasma membrane components are true EXCEPT:

a. G- proteins are composed of 3 subunits

b. lipid bilayer has hydrophobic and hydrophilic poles

c. glycocalyx is usually composed of phospholipids - CORRECT

d. gated channels are open only transiently.



24. which statement about nucleolus is not true:

a. it is an inclusion body

b. it is bounded by membrane - CORRECT.

c. it is located within nucleus

d. it is observable during interphase.



25. rough endoplasmic reticulum is indirectly involved in:

a. carbohydrate synthesis

b. lipid synthesis

c. protein synthesis - CORRECT

d. protein degradation.



26. Types of vesicle formed by golgi apparatus is:

a. pinocytic vesicle

b. secretory vesicle- CORRECT

c. excretory vesicle

d. actylcholine vesicle



27. concerning human cells.

a. mitochondria contains single layer of lipid molecule

b. cell membrane is composed of one layer of lipid molecule

c. contains smooth endoplasmic reticulum - CORRECT

d. all are capable of phagocytosis



28. entire human body contains

a. all excitable cells

b. 75- 100 trilion cells - CORRECT.

c. all non-excitable cells

d. 75 trillian cells



29. The organelles present in largest number are:

a. microtubules in muscle spindle

b. mitochodria in hepatic cells - CORRECT

c. ribosomes in neutrophills

d. lysosomes in basal lamina



30. Regarding transport through cell membrane.

a. carrier mediated diffusion in unidirectional

b carrier mediated diffusin require high amount of ATP.

c. ATP binding site of NA-K pump is situated inside the cell - CORRECT.

d. osmotic pressure is required for osmosis



31. following cells are considered to be phagocytic in nature:

a. plasma cells

b. fibroblast

c.kupffer cells - CORRECT

d. lymphocytes



32. regarding digestive vesicles cell all statements are true except:

a. replenish the cellular membrane - CORRECT

b. causes regression of tissue

c. contain bacterial agents

d. are concerned with catabolic functions.



33. interior of cell is negative because of all of the factors except:

a. presence of organelle

b. greater concentration of chloride ion inside cell - CORRECT

c. greater concentration of intracellular proteins

d. due to Na-K ATPase pump



34. Regarding ribosomes:

a. consist of two sub-units of equal sizes

b. it consist of DNA

c. consist of 40% RNA and 60% protein

d. consist of 40% protein and 60% RNA - CORRECT.



35. Which of the following characteristics is shared by the events of pinocytosis and phagocytosis?

a. involve the recruitment of actin filaments - CORRECT

b. occurs spontaneously and non selectively

c. are observed only in macrophages and neutrophils

d. do no require adenosine triphosphate.



36. Which of the following proteins is most likely to be the product of proto-oncogene?

a. cytoskeletal protein

b. sodium channel

c. growth factor receptor- CORRECT

d. myosine light chain.



37. A phospholipid bilayer is most permeable to which of the following?

a. sodium

b. calcium

c. water

e. oxygen - CORRECT



38. which of the following characteristics of a biological cell membrane is most influenced by its cholesterol content?

a. thickness

b. fluidity - CORRECT.

c. ion permeability

d. hydrophobicity



39. The appearance of which of the following distinuishes eukaryotic cells from lower units of life?

a. DNA

B. RNA

C. nucleus - CORRECT

d. membranes



40. " Degeneration" of genetic code occurs during which of the following steps of proteins synthesis?

a. DNA replication

b. transcription

c. post-transcriptional modification

d. translation - CORRECT.



41. Digestion of nutrients in single typical cell is brought about by:

a. ribosomes

b. lysosomes - CORRECT

c. peroxisomes

d. centrosomes



42. Microfilaments and microtublues have all of the following functions EXCEPT:

a. formation of cytoskeleton

b. formation of endoplasmic reticulum between cell membrane and nuclear membrane - CORRECT

c. formation of cilia and ciliated epithelium

d. formation of centriols and mitotic spindle.



43. Lysosomes that contains undigested waste is called

a. primary lysosome

b. secondary lysosome.

c. residual body - CORRECT

d. inactive lysosome



44. vacuoles present in cytoplasm help in

a. storage of nutrients

b. excretion of wastes - CORRECT

c. synthesis of enzymes

d. secretion of enzymes



45. Ribosomes are formed by:

a. golgi apparatus

b. endoplasmic reticulum

c. nucleolus - CORRECT

d. lysosomes.



46. Tight junctions are present in

a. cell membrane

b. renal distal tubule - CORRECT

c. alveolar epithelial cells

d. hepatic cells



47. Pripheral proteins of cell membrane

a. are loosely attached to cell membrane by electrostatic interactions - CORRECT

b. have negative charge

c. act as receptors

d. are embedded in cell membrane



48.steroid hormones, cholesterol synthesizing cells have extensive.

a. smooth endoplasmic reticulum - CORRECT

b. rough endoplasmic reticulum

c. golgi apparatus

d. mitochondria



49.Gap junctions are found in:

a. smooth muscle cells - CORRECT

b. skeletal muscle cells

c. glandular cells

d. ciliated cells



50. "LEAKY " tight junctions are present in:

a. acinar cells

b. axonal cells

c. nuclear membrane

d. gall bladder and renal proximal tubules - CORRECT.